Daily Current Affairs Quiz: September 8 , 2023

Ans. 1 Option D is correct Explanation
• Act East Policy- Act East Policy was launched in 2014
• It was launched by the Current Prime Minister of India – Narendra Modi
• India was in a very favorable position from the perspective of economic might when the Act East Policy was launched in 2014.
• Focus is more on boosting economic cooperation, building infrastructure for greater connectivity, and importantly
strategic & security ties Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Look East Policy
• Look East Policy was launched in 1991
• It was launched by former Prime Minister of India – PV Narasimha Rao
• India had a very fragile economy when Look East Policy was launched, due to the 1991 Economic crisis. India was in a transition phase to a liberalized economy.
• Focus more on boosting economic cooperation. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Solution: option C.)

Ans. 2 Option C is the correct Explanation
• Mission LiFe
• The Prime Minister of India proposed the concept of LIFE at COP26 in Glasgow in November 2021.
• LIFE Global Movement seeks ideas from around the world to foster climate-friendly behaviors in people, households, and communities. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The term LiFE, which means ‘Lifestyle For Environment’.
• Mission LiFE was inaugurated at the Statue of Unity in Gujarat.
• The Mission aims to put LiFE’s goal into measurable influence. It is intended to mobilize at least one billion Indians and
other global citizens to take individual and collective action to safeguard and conserve the environment between 2022 and 2028.
• By 2028, it is hoped that at least 80% of all villages and urban local bodies in India will be environmentally friendly. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Mission LiFE is led by NITI Aayog and implemented by the Union Ministry of Environment, Forests, and Climate Change. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Mission LiFE will be carried out by making individual environmentally friendly behavior a mainstream movement.
• It will crowdsource empirical and scalable ideas that can be implemented by a huge number of individuals.
• It will also draw on local climate-friendly social norms and beliefs throughout the
world

Ans. 3 Option C is the correct Explanation
• The African Union (AU) is a continental body consisting of the 55 member states that make up the countries of the African Continent.
• Formation:
• In 1963, the Organization of African Unity was founded by the independent states of Africa. The organization aimed to promote cooperation between African states. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The 1980 Lagos Plan of Action was adopted by the Organization of African Unity.
• The plan suggested that Africa should minimize reliance upon the West by promoting intra-African trade. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• In 2002, the Organization of African Unity was succeeded by the African Union, which had as one of its goals to accelerate the “economic integration of the continent”.

Ans. 4 Option A is the correct Explanation
• Malaviya Mission – Teachers Training Programme is organized by the University Grants Commission, in association with the Ministry of Education.
• Objective: To provide tailored training programs for teachers. Hence, Option A
is correct
• This program will work for the capacity building of faculty members in higher educational institutions (HEIs).
• It aims to improve the quality of teachers’ training, build leadership skills in teachers, and help realize the goals of NEP.
• The capacity building under the Mission will be mapped to the credit framework to ensure career progression pathways for educators.

Ans. 5 Option C is the correct Explanation
• Dark Patterns are unethical UI/UX interactions, designed to mislead or trick users to make them do something they don’t to do. Hence, Option C is correct
• In turn, they benefit the company or platform employing the designs.
• By using dark patterns, digital platforms take away a user’s right to full information about the services they are using and their control over their browsing experience.

Ans. 6 Option A is the correct Explanation
• It was set up by the Supreme Court to flag cases of official non-compliance with its orders related to conservation. Hence,
Statement 1 is correct.
• Set up in 2002, and reconstituted in 2008
• The CEC has “rendered yeoman services to the cause of the environment.”
• It has filed thousands of reports on issues referred to it by the apex court that have shaped the discourse around environmental policy.
o These include compensatory afforestation, net present value of forests, Kudremukh mining, Aravali forests, and Bellary mining.
o In 2006, a CEC report resulted in a month’s simple imprisonment of a former Maharashtra minister.
o serving as the Forest Secretary for permitting wood mills to operate in In August, the SC permitted the ministry to
proceed further with the constitution of the CEC “as a permanent body would be in the interest of all the stakeholders.”
the ministry issued the notification.
• The notification, diluted the CEC’s autonomy Hence, statements 2 and 3 is incorrect
• Now anyone considered an “expert” can be included as a member.
• The notification makes it clear that “the committee shall function under the administrative control of the Central
Government in the Ministry of Environment”.
• “In case any suggestion or recommendation of the Central Empowered Committee is not acceptable to the State or Central Government.
• The Government shall give reasons in writing for not accepting the same and such The decision of the Central Government shall be final,”.
• It does seem that the government has been successful in reducing the role and influence of the SC.

Ans. 7 Option C is correct Explanation
• In September 2022, the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change released guidelines on ‘Swachh Vayu  Sarvekshan- Ranking of Cities’ under the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP).
• Objective: o Swachh Vayu Sarvekshan is to give a ranking to 131 cities in the country for implementing City Action Plans
o It was prepared as part of NCAP for reducing air pollution by up to 40% by 2025-26.
• Cities are required to do the self-assessment as per the framework provided on the PRANA online portal. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• ‘PRANA’ is the acronym for Portal for Regulation of Air-pollution in  Non-Attainment Cities.
• This Sarvekshan provides a tool for cities to plan their actions in order to improve the air quality. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• It is not based on the measurement of the air quality parameters to rank the cities. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Ans. 8 Option A is the correct Explanation
• The National Wildlife Action Plan of MoEFCC stipulated that state governments should declare land falling within 10 km of the boundaries of national parks and wildlife sanctuaries as ESZs under the Environmental (Protection) Act, 1986.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• The primary objective of ESZs is to provide a buffer zone for protected areas to minimize anthropogenic pressure and conserve biodiversity. Hence, statement 1 is correct
• While the 10-km rule is implemented as a general principle, the extent of its application can vary. Hence, statement 3 is correct
• Areas beyond 10 km can also be notified by the Union government as ESZs if they hold larger ecologically important “sensitive corridors”.

Ans. 9 Option A is the correct Explanation
• Fixed interest rates are those that do not change during the tenure of the loan. Hence, Statement 1 is correct
• On the other hand, floating interest rates are subject to market dynamics and the base rate, therefore, the risk differentiation.
• Floating interest rates are generally lower than fixed interest rates. Hence, statement  2 is incorrect
• For example, if the floating interest rate for home loans is 10.5%, the fixed interest rate would be 12%.
• Floating interest rate loans do not draw any prepayment penalty, unlike fixed rate loans. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect
• The fixed rate-based regime endows a borrower with greater certainty and security.
• This also helps in better planning and structuring of individual budgets.

Ans. 10 Option D is correct Explanation
• Heat Index, also known as apparent temperature, is a measure of how the temperature feels to humans. Hence,
statement 1 is incorrect
• Relative humidity is an important factor that determines heat index, along with air temperature. Hence, statement 2 is
incorrect
• A complex formula to calculate heat index was published by Dr. Robert Steadman.
• His study considers a typical adult human of either sex, with a height of 1.7 meters and a weight of 67 kg.
• Dew point is an important factor in the calculation of heat index.
• Some countries have also developed their own corresponding indices to measure heat index.