Q1. Consider the following statements with reference to One Nation, One Election
1. It will reduce the problem in the decision-making process.
2. It helps in reducing election expenses for both political parties and the government
3. It will ensure efficient utilization of government resources and security forces
4. It will reduce the term of the Legislative Assemblies.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Solution: option c.)
Ans. 1 Option C is correct Explanation
• The Election Commission first mooted the idea in at least 1983.
• Until 1967, simultaneous elections were the norm in India.
• The first General Elections to the House of People (Lok Sabha) and all State Legislative Assemblies were held simultaneously in 1951-52.
Arguments in the favour of ‘One Nation, One Election
• To reduce the problem in the decision-making process. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It helps in reducing election expenses for both political parties and the government.Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The idea of simultaneous elections for Parliament, State assemblies and local bodies will:
o Reduce expenditure
o Ensure efficient utilisation of government resources and security forces. Hence statement 3 is correct.
o Help in effective policy planning. Arguments against ‘One Nation, One Election
• Terms of Legislative Assemblies cannot be reduced, to have simultaneous elections to Legislative Assemblies and Parliament. Hence statement 4 is incorrect.
Q2. Consider the following statements about Hindu Succession Act, 2005
1. The act recognizes women as coparceners for property partitions arising from 2005.
2. The law applies to ancestral property and to intestate succession in personal property, where succession happens as per law and not through a will.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: option D.)
Ans. 2 Option D is correct Explanation
• Hindu Succession Act, 1956 was amended in September 2005 and women were recognised as coparceners for property
partitions arising from 2005. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Section 6 of the Act was amended to make a daughter of a coparcener also a coparcener by birth “in her own right in the same manner as the son”.
• It also gave the daughter the same rights and liabilities “in the coparcenary property as she would have had if she had been a son”.
• The law applies to ancestral property and to intestate succession in personal property, where succession happens as per law and not through a will. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Q3. Consider the following statements
1. In India, there is no law restricting the candidates contesting in one Lok Sabha election from three constituencies.
2. In the 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies.
3. As per the existing rules, if a 7 candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the constituencies vacated by him/her winning in all the constituencies.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Solution: option A.)
Ans. 3 Option A is correct Explanation
• In 1996, the Representation of the People Act, 1951 was amended to restrict from ‘three’ to ‘two’ the number of seats one
candidate could contest in Lok Sabha and Assembly elections. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• In 1991, Shri Devi Lal contested three Lok Sabha seats,Sikar, Rohtak and Ferozepur seats. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Whenever a candidate contests from more than one seat and wins more than one, the candidate has to retain only one, forcing bypolls in the rest.
• It results in an unavoidable financial burden on the public exchequer, government manpower and other resources for holding by-election against the resultant vacancy. Hence, statement 3 is not correct
Q4. With reference to The National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT), consider the following
statements:
1. It was set up in 1961 under the Ministry of Education to undertake, promote, and coordinate research in areas related to school education and prepare and publish model textbooks.
2. The Executive Committee (EC) is the highest decision-making body of NCERT and is chaired by the Education Minister.
Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(b) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(c) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I
Solution: option B.)
Ans. 4 Option B is correct Explanation
• The NCERT is an autonomous organization set up in 1961 by the Government of India. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• The Executive Committee (EC) is the highest decision-making body of NCERT and is chaired by the Education Minister. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Objectives
o To assist and advise the Central and State Governments on policies and programmes for qualitative improvement in school education.
o To undertake, promote and coordinate research in areas related to:
o School education
o Prepare and publish model textbooks
o Supplementary material
o Newsletters, journals
Q5. Consider the following countries
(a) Bulgaria
(b) Ukraine
(c) Turkey
(d) Serbia
How many of the countries mentioned above share boundaries with the black sea?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Solution: option c.)
Ans. 5 Option C is correct Explanation
• The Black Sea, also known as the Euxine Sea, is one of the major water bodies and a famous inland sea of the world.
• It is surrounded by the Pontic, Caucasus, and Crimean Mountains in the south, east and north respectively.
• The Turkish straits system – the Dardanelles, Bosporus and Marmara Sea – forms a transitional zone between the
Mediterranean and the Black Sea
• The Black Sea is also connected to the Sea of Azov by the Strait of Kerch.
• It is bounded by Turkey, Bulgaria, Romania, Ukraine, Russia and Georgia. Hence, Option C is correct.
Q6. Consider the following statements on India’s first Mission to the Sun
Statement I: Aditya-L1 is able to look at the Sun continuously without any eclipses.
Statement II: Aditya-L1 to be launched by ISRO will be placed in the point L1.
Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(b) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(c) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I
Solution: option c.)
Ans. 6 Option C is correct Explanation
• The Aditya-L1 Mission to be launched by ISRO will be placed in the L1 orbit which is about 1.5 million km from the Earth. Hence, Statement II is correct.
• The orbit allows Aditya-L1 to look at the Sun continuously without any occultation/eclipses. Hence, Statement I correct.
• Objective: To study the Sun’s corona, Sun’s photosphere, chromosphere, solar emissions, solar winds and flares and Coronal Mass Ejections (CMEs) and to carry out round-the-clock imaging of the Sun.
Q7. The ‘Project 17A’ seen in the news recently is associated with
(a) Aircraft Carriers
(b) Fighter Jets
(c) Frigates
(d) Destroyers
Solution: option c.)
Ans. 7 Option C is correct Explanation
• Project 17 Alpha Frigates was launched by the Indian Navy in 2019 to construct a series
of stealth guided-missile frigates. Hence, Option C is correct.
• These are currently being constructed by two companies viz. Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders (MDL) and Garden Reach
Shipbuilders & Engineers (GRSE)
• Six P17A Project ships have been launched so far between 2019 and 2023.
• These were ‘Nilgiri’, ‘Himgiri’, ‘Udaygiri’, ‘Dunagiri’, ‘Taragiri’ and ‘Vindhyagiri’.
Q8. Consider the following statements with reference to the River Ganga
1. It originates from the Gangotri Glacier in the Indian state of Uttarakhand.
2. The Ganges River Dolphin is an endangered animal that specifically habitats this river.
3. The Ganga basin outspreads in India and Bangladesh only.
4. The Yamuna and The Ramganga are some of its left bank tributaries.
How many of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Solution: option B.)
Ans. 8 Option B is correct Explanation
• River Ganga is the longest river of India and is revered by Hindus as the most sacred river on earth.
• It originates in the snowfields of the Gangotri Glacier in the Himalayas. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The Ganga basin outspreads in India, Tibet (China), Nepal and Bangladesh over an area of 10,86,000 Sq.km. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Drainage Basin: Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Bihar, West Bengal, Uttarakhand, Jharkhand, Haryana, Chhattisgarh, Himachal Pradesh and Union Territory of Delhi draining nearly 26% of the total geographical area of the country.
Q9. Consider the following statements with reference to the World Bank on Road safety
1. According to the World Bank, improving road safety in India is vital to the nation’s health, well- being and economic growth.
2. The already-deprived sections of society are the most vulnerable to road crashes.
3. Close to 70% of the fatalities on the roads are people belonging to the economically productive section of the population.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Solution: option c.)
Ans. 9 Option C is correct Explanation
• The World Bank notes that improving road safety in India is vital to the nation’s health, well-being and economic growth. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The already-deprived sections of society are the most vulnerable to road crashes. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• They include road users like pedestrians, cyclists, two-wheelers and unprotected children.
• Close to 70% of the fatalities on the roads are people belonging to the economically productive section of the population. Hence, statement 3 is correct
Q10. Consider the following statements
1. The Indian constitution clearly mentions the conduct of a special session of Parliament.
2. The Indian Constitution specifies that six months should not elapse between two parliamentary sessions.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: option A.)
Ans. 10 Option A is correct Explanation
• The government determines the date and duration of parliamentary sessions.
• The President is informed about the Committee’s decision, who then summons Members of Parliament to meet for the
session.
• The Constitution specifies that six months should not elapse between two parliamentary sessions. Hence, statement
2 is correct.
• The framers of the Constitution borrowed it from the Government of India Act of 1935.
• However, the Constitution does not use the term “special session”. Hence, statement 1
is incorrect.
• It refers to sessions the government has convened for specific occasions, like commemorating parliamentary or national
milestones.