Q1. Consider the following statements with reference to the PM e-bus Sewa Scheme
1. It intends to augment city bus services with e-buses on a PPP model.
2. Augmenting the City bus services (169 cities) and Green Urban Mobility Initiatives are two segments of the scheme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: option B.)
Ans. 1 Option B is correct Explanation
• It intends to augment city bus services with 10,000 e-buses on a PPP model. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
• An e-bus is any bus whose propulsion and accessory systems are powered exclusively by a zero-emissions electricity source.
• It will have an estimated cost of ₹57,613 crore, of which the Centre will provide ₹20,000 crore.
• It will support the bus operations for 10 years.
• Two segments of the Scheme
• Segment A – Augmenting the City bus services (169 cities)
• The approved bus scheme will augment city bus operations with 10,000 e-buses on a PPP model.
• Segment B – Green Urban Mobility Initiatives (GUMI) (181 cities). Hence Statement 2 is correct.
• It envisages green initiatives like bus priority, infrastructure, multimodal interchange facilities, NCMC-based
Automated Fare Collection Systems, Charging infrastructure, etc
Q2. Consider the following statements about the UN Convention on the Law of the Sea 1982 (UNCLOS 1982):
1. It is an international agreement that establishes a legal framework for all marine and maritime activities in the
high seas.
2. The United Nations General Assembly developed an international legally binding instrument under UNCLOS on The conservation and sustainable use of marine biological diversity in areas beyond national jurisdiction
Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(b) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(c) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I
Solution: option B.)
Ans. 2 Option B is the correct Explanation
• Adopted in 1982, it is also called the Law of the Sea Convention
• It is an international agreement that establishes a legal framework for all marine and maritime activities.
• As of June 2016, 167 countries and the European Union are parties.
• It divides marine areas into five main zones namely- Internal Waters, Territorial Sea, Contiguous Zone, Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ), and the High Seas. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• The United Nations General Assembly developed an international legally binding instrument under UNCLOS on the
conservation and sustainable use of marine biological diversity in areas beyond national jurisdiction. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Q3. Consider the following statements about the Sessions of Parliament
1. The decision to summon the Parliament Is taken by the Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs which is
formalised by the President.
2. India does not have a fixed parliamentary calendar
3. As per the constitution, Parliament meets for three sessions in a year
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Solution: option B.)
Ans. 3 Option B is correct Explanation Sessions of Parliament
• The summoning of Parliament is specified in Article 85 of the Constitution.
• The decision is taken by the Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs which is formalised by the President, in whose name MPs are summoned to meet for a session. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• India does not have a fixed parliamentary calendar. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• By convention Parliament meets for three sessions in a year. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
Q4. With reference to bail in India, consider the following statements:
(a) The term bail is clearly defined in the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC).
(b) 2. The CrPC empowers magistrates to grant bail for bailable offenses as a matter of right.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: option B.)
Ans. 4 Option B is correct Explanation
• The Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) does not define the word bail but only categorizes offences under the Indian Penal Code as ‘bailable’ and ‘non-bailable’. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect
• The CrPC empowers magistrates to grant bail for bailable offenses as a matter of right. This would involve release on furnishing a bail bond, without or without security. Hence Statement 2 is correct
• For non-bailable offenses that enable the police officer to arrest without a warrant, a magistrate would determine if the accused is fit to be released on bail.
Q5. Consider the following sectors
1. Steel
2. Electricity
3. Cement
4. Crude Oil
How many of the sectors mentioned above constitute the Core Sectors of the Indian Economy?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Solution: option D.)
Ans. 5 Option D is correct Explanation
• Eight Core Sectors comprise 40.27% of the weight of items included in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP).
• The eight core sector industries in decreasing order of their weightage: Refinery Products> Electricity> Steel> Coal>
Crude Oil> Natural Gas> Cement> Fertilisers. Hence, all options are correct.
Q6. Consider the following statements about Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC)
1. It is an initiative of the Ministry of Finance as part of the Digital India push.
2. Under this, all seller and buyer platforms will work through one open protocol and can connect through ONDC.
3. ONDC function is limited to delivery of food only.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Solution: option A.)
Ans. 6 Option A is the correct Explanation
• Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) was launched in late 2021 under the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) by the Ministry of Commerce as part of the Digital India push. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• It works as a network of interconnected e-marketplaces through which sellers, including brands, can list and sell their products directly to customers bypassing any middlemen or intermediaries. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• It functions on the basis of an open network in the form of a gateway where buyers and sellers across different platforms will be able to connect.
• Along with food delivery, ONDC also offers delivery services for groceries, home decor, cleaning essentials and other products. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect
Q7. Which of the following statements defines “stem cells” most aptly?
(a) Specialized cells with a limited capacity for self-renewal and differentiation.
(b) Cells found only in plants that help in structural support.
(c) Undifferentiated cells with the potential to self-renew and differentiate into various cell types.
(d) Immune cells responsible for fighting infections in the human body.
Solution: option C.)
Ans. 7 Option C is correct Explanation
• Stem cells are undifferentiated cells that have the unique ability to self-renew (create more stem cells) and differentiate (develop into specialized cell types) into various cell types. Hence, Option C is correct.
• Such specialized cells include blood cells, brain cells, heart muscle cells, or bone cells.
• No other cell in the body has the natural ability to generate new cell types.
• This characteristic makes them essential for tissue repair, regeneration, and development in multicellular organisms.
Q8. Consider the following statements about Chandrayaan-3:
1. It is carrying seven scientific payloads, four installed on the lander, two on the rover, and one on the propulsion module that is going around the Moon in an orbit.
2. RAMBHA or Radio Anatomy of Moon Bound Hypersensitive Ionosphere and Atmosphere is meant to measure the
plasma density (concentration of ions and electrons) near the lunar surface
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: option C.)
Ans. 8 Option C is correct Explanation
• The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) put out samples of data collected from the Moon by three more instruments.
• Chandrayaan-3 is carrying seven scientific payloads, four installed on the lander, two on the rover, and one on the propulsion module that is going around the Moon in an orbit. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The seventh instrument, called the LASER Retroreflector Array, is a set of mirrors that will remain on the Moon for a much longer duration.
• It does not collect any data on its own but is meant to reflect laser beams fired from Earth.
• Scientists use these kinds of experiments to accurately measure the distance of the Moon from the Earth.
• RAMBHA or Radio Anatomy of Moon Bound Hypersensitive Ionosphere and Atmosphere is meant to measure the plasma density (concentration of ions and electrons) near the lunar surface. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It indicated that the plasma near the lunar surface was “relatively sparse”.
• The Alpha Particle X-ray Spectroscope, or APXS, installed on the rover, detected signals of the presence of Sulphur and other minor elements.
Q9. The Johannesburg Declaration seen in the news recently is related to
(a) Expansion of BRICS membership
(b) Strengthening Climate Change mitigation in island countries
(c) Providing financial aid to African nations
(d) Humanitarian aid to war-stricken areas
Solution: option A.)
Ans. 9 Option A is the correct Explanation
• Recently, the leaders of Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa took a call to expand the BRICS grouping from five countries to 11.
• The Johannesburg declaration, issued after the summit, said Argentina, Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, Saudi Arabia and the United Arab Emirates (UAE) had been invited to become full members from January 1, 2024. Hence, Option A is correct
Q10. Consider the following statements on Parliamentary Privileges
1. These are the rights and immunities enjoyed by MPs in India to enable them to discharge their duties and functions without interference or intimidation.
2. These privileges are derived from the Constitution of India only.
3. These parliamentary privileges are absolute in nature.
How many of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Solution: option B.)
Ans. 10 Option B is correct Explanation
• Parliamentary privileges are the rights and immunities enjoyed by members of Parliament (MPs) in India to enable them to discharge their duties and functions without interference or intimidation. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• These privileges are derived from the Constitution of India, parliamentary conventions, laws made by the Parliament,
rules of Lok sabha and Rajya sabha, and judicial interpretations. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• The members of Parliament are exempted from any civil or criminal liability for any statement made or act done in the course of their duties.
• The privileges are claimed only when the person is a member of the house.
• These privileges are essential so that the proceedings and functions can be made in a disciplined and undisturbed manner.
• These parliamentary privileges are not absolute and are subject to certain limits. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• For example, MPs are expected to use their privileges responsibly and not abuse them for personal gain