Daily Current Affairs Quiz: October 8-9, 2023

Q1. Consider the following statements with reference to earthquake

1. Non-stop movement in Tectonic plates resulting in stress on Earth’s crust causing earthquakes.
2. The location below the earth’s surface where the earthquake starts is called the epicentre
3. The location directly above it on the surface of the earth is called the hypocentre.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None

Show solution

Solution: option A.)

Ans. 1 Option A is correct Explanation
• The location below the earth’s surface where the earthquake starts is called the hypocenter, and the location directly above it on the surface of the earth is called the epicentre. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
• Tectonic earthquake
• Tectonic plates (Lithospheric plates) are constantly shifting as they drift around on the viscous, or slowly flowing, mantle layer below.
• This non-stop movement causes stress on Earth’s crust.
• When the stresses get too large, it leads to cracks called faults.
• When tectonic plates move, it also causes movements at the faults.
• Thus, the slipping of land along the faultline along convergent, divergent and transform boundaries causes earthquakes. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Q2. The dead sea is bordered by which countries?
A. Israel and Egypt
B. Israel and Lebanon
C. Israel and Jordan
D. Jordan and lebanon

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Solution: option C.)

Ans. 2 Option C is correct Explanation
• The Dead Sea is a salt lake bordered by Jordan to the east and Palestine’s West Bank and Israel to the west. Hence, option C is correct.
• It lies in the Jordan Rift Valley, and its main tributary is the Jordan River

Q3. Consider the following statements about National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB)

1. It is statutory body set-up under the Ministry of Home Affairs
2. It has been entrusted to maintain the National Database of Sexual Offenders (NDSO) and share it with the States/UTs on a regular basis.
3. It has also been designated as the Central Nodal Agency to manage technical and operational functions of the ‘Online Cyber-Crime Reporting Portal

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None

Show solution

Solution: option B.)

Ans. 3 Option B is correct Explanation
• NCRB is non statutory body headquartered in New Delhi, was set-up in 1986 under the Ministry of Home Affairs Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• It is to function as a repository of information on crime and criminals so as to assist the investigators in linking crime to the perpetrators.
• It was set up based on the recommendations of the National Police Commission (1977- 1981) and the MHA’s Task Force (1985).
• Functions:
• The Bureau has been entrusted to maintain the National Database of Sexual Offenders (NDSO) and share it with the States/UTs on a regular basis. Hence, statement 2 is
correct.
• NCRB has also been designated as the Central Nodal Agency to manage technical and operational functions of the ‘Online Cyber-Crime Reporting Portal’ Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• through this any citizen can lodge a complaint or upload a video clip as an evidence of crime related to child pornography, rape/gang rape.

Q4. Consider the following statements:

1. The creation of assets, repayment of loan and reducing liability is a major function of capital expenditure.
2. revenue expenditure is one that neither creates assets nor reduces any liability of the government.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Show solution

Solution: option D.)

Ans. 4 Option D is correct Explanation
• Capital spending is associated with investment or development spending, where expenditure has benefits extending years into the future. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Unlike capital expenditure, which creates assets for the future, revenue expenditure is one that neither creates assets nor reduces any liability of the government. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Salaries of employees, interest payment on past debt, subsidies, pension, etc, fall under the category of revenue expenditure.

Q5. Consider the following statements about Gaganyaan

1. It is also called the Orbital Module and will have three Indian astronauts, including a woman.
2. It will circle Earth at a low-earth-orbit at an altitude of 300-400 km from earth
3. GSLV Mk III, also called the LVM-3 (Launch Vehicle Mark-3,) the three- stage heavy lift launch vehicle, will be used to launch it

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None

Show solution

Solution: option C)

Ans. 5 Option C is correct Explanation
• The Gaganyaan system module, called the Orbital Module will have three Indian astronauts, including a woman. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It will circle Earth at a low-earth-orbit at an altitude of 300-400 km from earth for 5-7 days. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• GSLV Mk III, also called the LVM-3 (Launch Vehicle Mark-3,) the three-stage heavy lift launch vehicle, will be used to launch Gaganyaan as it has the necessary payload capability. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Q6. Consider the following statements with reference to Territorial Army (TA)

1. It is a professional army which acts as the first line of defence in Indian border areas.
2. It provides assistance to civil authorities in times of natural calamities and tragedies.
3. Only the existing members of the Indian defence forces can enroll into it.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None

Show solution

Solution: option A.)

Ans. 6 Option A is correct Explanation
• The Indian Territorial Army (TA) is the second line of defence after the regular Indian Army. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• It is only meant for those people who are already in mainstay civilian professions.
• In fact, gainful employment or self- employment in a civil profession is a prerequisite for joining the TA.
• Serving members of the Regular Army/ Navy/ Air Force/ Police/ GREF/ Para Military and like forces are not eligible. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Role and Responsibilities
o Relieving the regular army from static duties.
o Providing assistance to civil authorities in times of natural calamities and tragedies. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
o Help civil administration with providing essential services in areas where state machinery is stretched or there are security threats.

Q7. Consider the following statements regarding the 54EC bonds
1. They are fixed income instruments which provide capital gains tax exemption to investors.
2. They are issued by various institutions managed by the Government of India to finance specific capital projects.
3. They have a fixed lock-in period of 5 years.
4. They can only be held in demat form.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four

Show solution

Solution: option C.)

Ans. 7 Option C is correct Explanation
• Section 54EC Bonds are a type of fixed income financial instruments which provide tax exemption under capital gains to investors, under Section 54EC of the Income
Tax Act. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• These bonds allow an investor to save income tax on long-term capital gain by investing the gains.
• The investment into these bonds has to be made within 6 months from the date of long- term capital gain.
• They have a fixed lock-in period of 5 years. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• They can be either held in physical or demat form. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
• They are issued by various institutions managed by the Government of India to finance specific capital projects. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Q8. Which of the following statements describe the primary function of an adjuvant in the context of vaccines?

A. To extend the shelf life of the vaccine.
B. To stimulate and strengthen the body’s immune response to the vaccine.
C. To dilute the vaccine for ease of administration.
D. To reduce the cost of vaccine production

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Solution: option B.)

Ans. 8 Option B is correct Explanation
• Recently, the World Health Organisation (WHO) has recommended the use of the R21/Matrix-M malaria vaccine.
• As of now, the vaccine has been licensed for use in Ghana, Nigeria and Burkina Faso.
• The Matrix-M component is a proprietary saponin-based adjuvant developed by Novavax and licensed to the Serum Institute for use in endemic countries.
• An adjuvant is an ingredient in a vaccine that enhances the immune system’s response to that vaccine. Hence, Option B is correct.
• They help the immune system better recognize what’s in a vaccine and remember it longer, increasing the amount of time that a vaccine may offer protection.

Q9. Consider the following statements

1. The Digital India Act 2023 provides guidelines for Artificial Intelligence (AI), Blockchain etc.
2. The “safe harbour” principle shields online platforms from liability related to user generated content.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Show solution

Solution: option C.)

Ans. 9 Option C is correct Explanation
• The Digital India Act 2023 (DIA) is designed to address the challenges and opportunities presented by the dramatic growth of the internet and emerging technologies.
• It is poised to replace the two decades old Information Technology Act of 2000 (IT Act).
• It places a strong emphasis on online safety and trust, with a commitment to safeguarding citizen’s rights in the digital realm.
• Additionally, it remains adaptable to shiftingMmarket dynamics and international legal principles.
• Recognising the growing importance of new age technologies such as AI and blockchain, the DIA provides guidelines for their responsible utilisation. Hence, statement 1
is correct.
• It upholds the concept of an open internet, striking a balance between accessibility and necessary regulations to maintain order and protect users.
• It contemplates a review of the “safe harbour” principle indicating a potential shift in online accountability standards.
• The principle presently shields online platforms from liability related to user generated content. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Q10. Consider the following countries
1. Lebanon
2. Saudi Arabia
3. Egypt
4. Syria
How many of the countries mentioned above do not border the country Israel?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four

Show solution

Solution: option A.)

Ans. 10 Option A is correct Explanation
• Israel is a country in the Middle East located at the eastern end of the Mediterranean Sea.
• Israel is bordered by Lebanon to the north, Syria and Jordan to the east, and Egypt to the south. Hence, Option A is correct.

Careerbywell Team