Q1. Consider the following statements
1. The term “Visa Shopping” refers to the practice of buying and selling travel visas in the black market.
2. The Schengen Agreement allows for passport-free travel and free movement of individuals between
member states.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: option B.)
Ans.1 Option B is correct nExplanation
• Visa shopping” refers to obtaining visas for countries that individuals may or may not visit during the granted visa period. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• It is a strategy used to increase the chances of obtaining visas for countries of their choice in the future.
• The Schengen Agreement, signed in 1985, created the Schengen Area, which includes multiple European countries that allow for passport-free travel and free movement of individuals between member states. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• This agreement is frequently associated with the concept of visa shopping.
Q2. What does NAAC accreditation primarily assess in educational institutions?
A. Student enrollment and attendance
B. Infrastructure and facilities
C. Academic research output
D. Quality of teaching and faculty
Solution: option D.)
Ans.2 Option D is correct Explanation:
• NAAC (National Assessment and Accreditation Council) accreditation primarily evaluates the quality of teaching and faculty in educational institutions.
• It assesses various aspects, including the student-teacher ratio, teacher qualifications, teaching methods, and other related factors to determine the quality of education provided by the institution.
Q3. Consider the following statements
1. Dust suppressants are typically salts of calcium or magnesium that can absorb moisture.
2. Use of dust suppressants, when mixed with water, is more effective in controlling pollution compared to conventional water spraying methods.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: option C.)
Ans. 3 Option C is correct Explanation
• Dust suppressants are typically salts of calcium or magnesium that can absorb moisture. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The “dust suppressant powder” when mixed along with water, is sprayed on roads to keep the dust down for longer.
• CPCB Study: The use of dust suppressants, when mixed with water, is more effective in controlling pollution compared to conventional water spraying methods. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• It led to a notable 30% reduction in dust concentration, particularly PM10, PM2.5,
and PM1, for up to six hours.
Q4. Consider the following
1. Solar cells
2. Microwave oven
3. Telecommunication laser
4. LED traffic lights
How many of the devices mentioned above is/are not examples of optoelectronic devices?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four
Solution: option C.)
Ans. 4 Option A is correct Explanation
• Optoelectronics is a fast-emerging technology field that consists of applying electronic devices to sourcing, detection, and control of light.
• It is largely based on semiconductor materials.
• These exhibit suitable bandgap energies for absorbing near-infrared and visible light, and their electric conductivity is also essential for such applications.
• Examples of optoelectronic devices consist of Telecommunication lasers, Optical fiber, Blue lasers, LED traffic lights, Photodiodes, Solar cells, etc. Hence, option A is correct.
Q5. Consider the following statements about Dollar–Rupee Swap
1. It’s a forex tool whereby the union government uses its currency to buy another currency or vice versa.
2. In a Dollar-Rupee buy/sell swap, it buys dollars (US dollars or USD) from banks in exchange for Indian Rupees (INR).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: Option B.)
Ans. 5 Option B is correct Explanation
• Dollar–DollarRupee swap is a forex tool whereby the central bank uses its currency to buy another currency or vice versa. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• In a Dollar-Rupee buy/sell swap, the central bank buys dollars (US dollars or USD) from banks in exchange for Indian Rupees (INR). Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• It immediately gets into an opposite deal with banks promising to sell dollars at a later date.
Q6. Consider the following statements about fiscal consolidation
1. The objective of fiscal consolidation is to reduce the accumulation of debts and reduce deficits
2. Fiscal consolidation can be achieved by increasing revenue and decreasing expenditure.
3. The fiscal deficit is the most important indicator of the government’s financial health.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Solution: option C.)
Ans. 6 Option C is correct Explanation
• Various policies undertaken by the government at national as well as sub- national levels to reduce the accumulation of debts and reduce deficits is known as fiscal consolidation.
• Fiscal consolidation can be achieved by increasing revenue and decreasing expenditure.
• The fiscal deficit is the most important indicator of the government’s financial health. The fiscal deficit, on the other hand, represents the amount of government borrowing for that given year.
• The Government’s two major deficits are the Revenue Deficit and the Fiscal Deficit.
Q7. Which of the following best describes the National Cooperative Exports Limited (NCEL)?
A. NCEL is a government agency responsible for regulating agricultural Nexports.
B. NCEL is a private corporation formed to promote international trade in the cooperative sector.
C. NCEL is a non-governmental organization working to support farmers through microloans.
D. NCEL is a research institution dedicated to studying cooperative farming practices.
Solution: option A.)
Ans. 7 Option B is correct Explanation
• The National Cooperative Exports Limited (NCEL) is an organization formed to promote international trade in the cooperative sector, specifically by enhancing exports.
• It is not a government agency but a private corporation with a focus on cooperative sector exports.
Q8. Which of the following statements regarding Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZs) in India are correct?
Statement 1: Eco-sensitive zones are established to allow unrestricted human activities and development within protected areas and wildlife sanctuaries.
Statement 2: The regulation of activities in ESZs is primarily aimed at protecting the environment and wildlife in the vicinity of protected areas.
Which one of the following statements is correct?
A. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
B. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
C. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I
D. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I
Solution: Option D.)
Ans. 8 Option B is correct Explanation
• Eco-sensitive zones (SEZs) are designated around protected areas or wildlife sanctuaries with the primary purpose of regulating and restricting certain activities to protect the environment and wildlife in
the vicinity.
• Statement 1 is incorrect because ESZs are not established to allow unrestricted human activities and development but rather to control and manage such activities to minimize negative impacts on the ecology and wildlife.
Q9. Consider the following statements, with respect to the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, of 2021
1. Only married women are allowed for termination of pregnancy under the act.
2. The opinion of the Court is essential for a pregnancy to be terminated after 24 weeks in case of substantial fetal abnormalities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: option A.)
• Under the Act, a pregnancy may be terminated up to 20 weeks by a married woman in the case of failure of a contraceptive method or device.
• It allows unmarried women to also terminate a pregnancy for this reason. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Opinion of one Registered Medical Practitioner (RMP) is needed for termination of pregnancy up to 20 weeks of gestation.
• Opinion of two RMPs is needed for termination of pregnancy of 20-24 weeks of
gestation.
• The opinion of the State-level medical board is essential for a pregnancy to be terminated after 24 weeks in case of substantial fetal abnormalities. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• It also increases the upper gestation limit from 20 to 24 weeks for special categories of
women.
Q10. Consider the following statements with reference to “Creamy Layer”
1. The creamy layer is a concept that puts an income ceiling on people availing caste-wise reservations in government jobs and education.
2. The term was introduced by the Sattanathan Commission in 1971.
3. This concept is applicable for reservations under the SCs, STs and Other Backward Classes quota.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Solution: Option B.)
Ans. 10 Option B is correct Explanation
• The creamy layer is a concept that puts an income ceiling on people availing caste-wise reservations in government jobs and education. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The term was introduced by the Sattanathan Commission in 1971, which directed that the “creamy layer” should be excluded from the reservations (quotas) of civil posts. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Till now, this is only applicable for reservations under the Other Backward Classes quota.
• SCs and STs are excluded since it was argued that their backwardness was based purely on untouchability for which economic improvement was not a remedy. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.