Q1. Consider the following statements about the Prevention of Money Laundering Act
1. The PMLA was enacted in response to India’s global commitment to the Vienna Convention to combat the menace of money laundering.
2. The provisions of this act apply to all financial institutions, banks, mutual funds, insurance companies, and their financial intermediaries.
3. The ED is responsible for enforcing the provisions of the PMLA and investigating money laundering cases.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Ans.1 Option C is correct Explanation
• The PMLA was enacted in response to India’s global commitment (Vienna Convention) to combat the menace of money laundering.
• It is a criminal law enacted to prevent money laundering
• to provide for confiscation of property derived from, or involved in, money- laundering and related matters.
• The provisions of this act are applicable to all financial institutions, banks (Including RBI), mutual funds, insurance companies, and their financial intermediaries.
• The ED is responsible for enforcing the provisions of the PMLA and investigating money laundering cases.
Q2. Consider the following statements about appointment to the High Court
1. The Chief Justice of India and the collegium of two Judges of the Supreme Court would take into account the views of the Chief Justice of the High Court and Judges of the High Court, Judges in the Supreme Court.
2. The appointment is subject to final approval by the President
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans.2 Option C is correct Explanation
• The Chief Justice of India and the collegium of two Judges of the Supreme Court would take into account the views of the Chief Justice of the High Court and Judges of the High Court, Judges in the Supreme Court.
• It is of no consequence whether that High Court is their parent High Court or they have functioned in that High Court on transfer.
• After their consultations, the Chief Justice of India will in the course of 4 weeks send his recommendation to the Union Minister of Law, Justice and Company Affairs.
• the recommendation of the Chief Justice of India to the Prime Minister who will advise the President in the matter of appointment.
• the appointment is approved by the President
Q3. Consider the following statements
1. The Special Marriage Act, of 1954 prescribes 18 and 21 years as the minimum age of consent for marriage for women and men respectively.
2. Sexual intercourse with a minor with or without consent is rape,
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. 3 Option D is correct Explanation
• The Special Marriage Act, of 1954 and the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act,
• 2006 prescribe 18 and 21 years as the minimum age of consent for marriage for women and men respectively.
• An individual attains the age of majority at 18 as per the Indian Majority Act, of 1875.
• Additionally, sexual intercourse with a minor is rape, and the ‘consent’ of a minor is regarded as invalid since she is deemed incapable of giving consent at that age.
Q4. With reference to Deep tech, consider the following statements
1. The technology refers to a class of startup businesses that develop new offerings based on tangible engineering innovation or scientific discoveries and advances.
2. Talent and market access, research guidance, and investors’ understanding of deep-tech are the major challenges faced by them.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans.4 Option C is correct Explanation
• Deep tech or deep technology refers to a class of startup businesses that develop new offerings based on tangible engineering innovation or scientific discoveries and advances.
• Usually, such startups operate on but are not limited to, agriculture, life sciences, chemistry, aerospace, and green energy.
• Talent and market access, research guidance, investors’ understanding of deep- -tech, customer acquisition, and cost for talent are the major challenges faced by them.
Q5. Consider the following statements about Minimum Support Prices (MSP)
1. It is a legal right in India
2. The government of India sets the MSP twice a year for 24 commodities.
3. The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) decides the minimum support price taking into
account the following factors
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Ans. 5 Option B is correct Explanation
• MSP is a form of government intervention to insure the farmers against a steep decline in the prices of their goods and to help them prevent losses.
• The government of India sets the MSP twice a year for 24 commodities.
• This is done by the government to protect the farmers against a fall in prices in a year of bumper production.
• It is not a legal right in India
• When the market price falls below the declared MSP, the government would purchase the entire quantity from the farmers at MSP.
• The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) decides the minimum support price taking into account the following factor
Q6. Consider the following statements with reference to the Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA)
1. It was enacted during the 1962 Sino- Indian War amid apprehensions that foreign powers were interfering in
India’s affairs.
2. The registrations are granted to individuals or associations that have definite cultural, economic, educational, religious, and social programs.
3. The NGOs can utilize the funds received for any purpose.
4. Once granted, FCRA registration is valid for a year.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four
Ans. 6 Option A is the correct Explanation
• The Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA) was enacted during the 1976 emergency amid apprehensions that foreign powers were interfering in India’s affairs. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• It sought to regulate foreign donations to individuals and associations so that they functioned “in a manner consistent with the values of a sovereign democratic republic”.
• The registrations are granted to individuals or associations that have definite cultural, economic, educational, religious, and social programs. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Broadly, it requires every person or NGO seeking to receive foreign donations to be registered under the Act.
• They should also utilize those funds only for the purpose for which they have been received and as stipulated in the Act. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• They are also required to file annual returns, and they must not transfer the funds to another NGO.
• Once granted, FCRA registration is valid for five years. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
• Once expired, the NGO is no longer entitled to receive foreign funds or utilize its existing funds without permission from the ministry.
Q7. With reference to MQ-9B Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs), consider the following statements
1. The MQ-9B has two variants viz. SkyGuardian and SeaGuardian.
2. The drone provides India with military surveillance capacity in the high
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. 7 Option C is correct Explanation
• MQ-9B Armed Drones is a variant of the MQ-9 “Reaper” which was used to launch a modified version of the Hellfire missile.
• The MQ-9B has two variants viz. SkyGuardian and SeaGuardian. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The drone can operate at over 40,000 feet, giving the Indian military surveillance capacity in the high-altitude Himalayan border areas. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The Predator also has a maximum endurance of 40 hours, making it useful for long-hour surveillance.
• Equipped with advanced features such as automatic take-off and landing, detect and avoid system, anti-spoofing GPS, and encrypted communication links.
Q8. With reference to the Lymphatic filariasis, consider the following statements
1. It is one of the neglected tropical diseases.
2. It is a vector-borne disease, caused by infection with parasites.
3. India is one of the countries which has eliminated this disease.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Ans. 8 Option B is correct Explanation
• Lymphatic Filariasis, commonly known as elephantiasis, is considered a Neglected Tropical Disease (NTD). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It impairs the lymphatic system and can lead to the abnormal enlargement of body parts, causing pain, severe disability, and social stigma.
• It is a vector-borne disease, caused by infection with parasites classified as nematodes (roundworms) of the family
Filarioidea. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• India is committed to eliminating Lymphatic Filariasis by 2027, three years ahead of the global target. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• The WHO recommends three drug treatments to accelerate the global elimination of lymphatic filariasis.
• The treatment, known as IDA, involves a combination of ivermectin, diethylcarbamazine citrate, and albendazole.
Q9. The Rohini Commission, seen in the news recently is associated with
A. Recommending the reforms in recognizing the rights of LGBTQ communities.
B. Reviewing the working of the Government Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs).
C. Recommending necessary reforms for women empowerment in government jobs
D. Examining the sub-categorisation of Other Backward Classes
Ans. 9 Option D is correct Explanation
• The Justice G. Rohini Commission is associated with the sub-categorising Other Backward Classes (OBC) caste groups.
Hence, option D is correct.
• Formed in 2017, the commission aimed to examine the concentration of reservation and benefits among dominant OBC caste groups.
• Based on its findings, the commission was to suggest a breakdown of the over 2,600 caste groups on the Central OBC list to ensure a more equitable redistribution of benefits.
Q10. Consider the following countries
1. Colombia
2. Brazil
3. Suriname
4. Bolivia
How many of the countries given above is/are part of the drainage basin of the Amazon River?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four
Ans. 10 Option C is correct Explanation
• The Amazon River is the world’s largest river by water volume and width.
• It is the second-longest river in the world after the Nile.
• It accounts for one-fifth of the total volume of freshwater entering the oceans globally.
• It is sometimes referred to as the “lungs of the Earth” due to its role in regulating the planet’s oxygen and carbon cycles.
• Its journey begins high in the Andes Mountains.
• It empties into the Atlantic Ocean on the northeastern coast of Brazil.
• It has the largest drainage area of any river system.
• Its watershed spans the countries of Brazil, Peru, Ecuador, Colombia, Venezuela and Bolivia. Hence, option C is correct.
• Tributaries: The Rio Negro, the Madeira River, the Xingu River, etc.
Where was the Lighthouse Tourism Conclave 2024, held to mark the start of the 2nd…
Where is the AROHA-2024 conference being held, inaugurated recently by Chief Justice of India, Justice…
Which country re-joined the Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU) as its 181st Member Parliament during the 149th…
Who represented India at the 2024 Asia-Pacific Ministerial Conference on Disaster Risk Reduction (APMCDRR)? (A)…
In which city did Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the International Telecommunication Union (ITU) -…
Aryna Sabalenka recently won her third consecutive WTA Wuhan 1000 singles title. She is from…