Q1. Consider the following statements with reference to unemployment
1. Structural Unemployment is a category of unemployment arising from the mismatch between the jobs available in the market and the skills of the available workers in the market.
2. Cyclical Unemployment is a result of the business cycle, where unemployment rises during recessions and declines with economic growth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: option C.)
Ans.1 Option C is correct Explanation
• Structural Unemployment: It is a category of unemployment arising from the mismatch between the jobs available in the market and the skills of the available workers in the market. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Many people in India do not get jobs due to a lack of requisite skills and due to poor education levels, it becomes difficult to train them.
• Cyclical Unemployment: It is a result of the business cycle, where unemployment rises during recessions and declines with economic growth. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Q2. Consider the following statements about Privileges
1. These are special rights, immunities, and exemptions enjoyed by the two houses of Parliament and the legislature of States only.
2. Article 105 and Article 194 of the Constitution of India grant privileges or advantages to the MPs and to the MLAs of every State respectively.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: option B.)
Ans.2 Option B is correct Explanation
• These are special rights, immunities, and exemptions enjoyed by the two Houses of Parliament and legislature of States, and their committees and their members.
• The Constitution has also extended these privileges to those persons who are entitled to speak and take part in the proceedings of a House or any of its committees. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• The main purpose of these MPs/MLAs is to perform their duties or function properly without any hindrances.
• It is essential for the democratic functioning of the legislatures.
• Without these privileges the Houses can neither maintain their authority, dignity, and honor.
• Nor can protect their members from any obstruction in the discharge of their parliamentary responsibilities.
• Article 105 and Article 194 of the Constitution of India grant privileges or advantages to the MPs (Article 105) and to
the MLAs (Article 194) of every State. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Q3. Consider the following statements with reference to the Delimitation Commission
1. The Delimitation Commission is to work without any executive influence.
2. The Constitution mandates that the Commission’s orders are final
3. Delimitation Commissions have been set up four times
4. There was no delimitation after the 1981 and 1991 Censuses.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four
Solution: option D.)
Ans.3 Option D is correct Explanation
• It literally means the act or process of fixing limits or boundaries of territorial constituencies in a country to represent changes in population.
• The Delimitation Commission is to work without any executive influence. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The Constitution mandates that the Commission’s orders are final. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• It cannot be questioned before any court as it would hold up an election indefinitely.
• Once the Act is in force, the Union government sets up a Delimitation Commission.
• The first delimitation exercise was carried out by the President (with the help of the Election Commission) in 1950-51
• The Delimitation Commission Act was enacted in 1952.
• Delimitation Commissions have been set up four times — 1952, 1963, 1973, and 2002 under the Acts of 1952, 1962, 1972, and 2002. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• There was no delimitation after the 1981 and 1991 Censuses. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
Q4. Consider the following statements
1. The SCs and STs have seats reserved in the Indian Parliament, state assemblies, and urban and rural-level organizations
2. Seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha are allocated based on the proportion of their population in the State.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: option D.)
Ans.4 Option D is correct Explanation
• The SCs and STs have seats reserved in the Indian Parliament, state assemblies, and urban and rural-level organizations. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha are allocated based on the proportion of their population in the State,as prescribed by:
o Article 330 of the Constitution of India
o Section 3 of the Representation of the People Act of 1951. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Q5. Consider the following statements with reference to the Bharatkosh Portal
1. It is an initiative of the Ministry of Commerce.
2. It provides one-stop services to deposit any fees/fines/other money into the Government account.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: option A.)
Ans.5 Option A is correct Explanation
• Bharatkosh Portal is an initiative of the Controller General of Accounts, Ministry of Finance, Government of India. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• It provides one-stop services to deposit any fees/fine/other money into the government’s account. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• It converges all the Civil Ministries/Departments of the Government of India.
• It aims to provide 24X7 year-round electronic services to deposit money into Government accounts using internet-based payment technologies to the users.
Q6. An increase in tax to GDP ratio of a country indicates which of the following?
1. Increasing economic growth rate
2. Less equitable distribution of national income
Select the correct code
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: option A.)
Ans.6 Option A is correct Explanation
• The tax-to-GDP ratio is a ratio of a nation’s tax revenue relative to its Gross Domestic Product (GDP). For example, if India’s tax-to- GDP ratio is 20%, it means that the government gets 20% of its GDP as tax contribution.
• The tax-to-GDP ratio is used to compare tax receipts from year to year. As taxes are related to economic activity, the ratio should stay relatively consistent. When the gross domestic product (GDP) grows, tax revenue should increase as well.
• The higher the tax to GDP ratio, the better the country’s financial position, Increasing economic growth rate, the government’s ability to fund its expenditures. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• A greater tax to GDP ratio indicates that the government can cast a wider fiscal net.
• The less equitable distribution of national income is not directly related to increase in tax to GDP ratio.
• Equal distribution of national income and resource allocation generally depends upon the economic planning of a country. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Q7. With reference to dark energy and dark matter, consider the following statements
1. The majority of the universe is dark energy.
2. Dark energy attracts and holds the galaxies together.
3. Both dark energy and dark matter are visible to the naked eye.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
Solution: option A.)
Ans.7 Option A is correct Explanation
• Roughly 68% of the universe is dark energy and dark matter makes up about 27% only. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The rest of everything on Earth, everything ever observed with all of our instruments, all normal matter adds up to less than 5% of the universe.
• Dark matter attracts and holds galaxies together while dark energy repels and causes the expansion of our universe. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• Both dark energy and dark matter are invisible. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
Q8. What is “Batillipes kalami” seen in the news recently ?
A. It is a genetically modified variety of rice.
B. It is a new species of marine Tardigrade.
C. It is a newly discovered fungi.
D. It is a virus which affects the pigs.
Solution: option B.)
Ans.8 Option B is correct Explanation
• Batillipes kalami, the new species, discovered from Mandapam in southeast Tamil Nadu belongs to the genus Batillipes.
• It is the second marine tardigrade to be discovered from Indian waters and the first one from the east coast. Hence, Option B is correct
• It is also the first taxonomically described species belonging to the genus Batillipes from India.
• It has a trapezoid-shaped head with sharp- tipped filament-like appendages (cirri) extending from it.
Q9. Consider the following words
1. Socialist
2. Secular
3. Integrity
4. Unity
How many of the words mentioned above was/were added in the preamble of the constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All four
Solution: option C.)
Ans.9 Option C is correct Explanation
• Through the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976), three new words i.e. “Socialist”, “Secular” & “Integrity” were added to the Preamble of the Constitution. Hence, Option C is correct.
• However, the socialism envisaged by the Indian state was not the socialism of the USSR or China of the time i.e. it did not envisage the nationalisation of all of India’s means of production.
• A secular Indian state is concerned with the relationship between human being and human being and not between human being and God and not between human being and God as it is a matter of individual choice and individual conscience.
Q10. Which of the following reflects the primary objective of the Paris Agreement?
A. Promoting renewable energy
B. Combating deforestation
C. Ensuring global food security
D. Reducing greenhouse gas emissions
Solution: option D.)
Ans.10 Option D is correct Explanation
• The Paris Agreement on Climate Change is a legally binding global agreement under the UNFCCC that was adopted in 2015.
• It aims to combat climate change and limit global warming to well below 20 C above pre- industrial levels, with an ambition to limit warming to 1.50 C.
• It sets out a framework for countries to work together to reduce greenhouse gas emissions, adapt to the impacts of climate change, and provide support to developing countries in their efforts to address climate change. Hence, Option D is correct.
• Under the Paris Agreement, each country is required to submit and update their NDCs every 5 years, outlining their plans for reducing greenhouse gas emissions and adapting to climate change.